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Showing posts with label Clubbing of Income. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Clubbing of Income. Show all posts

Tuesday, July 15, 2008

When A Wife Can Not Be Taxed For Her Earning?

I am a resident Indian, housewife, not employed. For FY 2007-08, I received an amount more than Rs.1,45,000 from my husband, who is an NRI, as gift through regular banking channels, all of which I have invested in shares. I have sold off some of these for a net profit of around Rs.550/-(before 1 year of acquiring these). I have no other source of income. Am I liable to file a return and if so in which form and what is the last date for the same?Sreela Mahambare , Pune

Gift from husband is completely tax free , as it is a receipt from husband who is defined as relative under section 56(2) (vi) of the I T Act. However, by virtue of section 64 of the I T Act, any income generated out of gift from husband shall be clubbed with income of your husband and accordingly taxed in his hand only. Section 64 (iv) related to clubbing of income of spouse out of assets transferred without consideration is given as under

64. (1)In computing the total income of any individual, there shall be included all such income as arises directly or indirectly(iv) subject to the provisions of clause (i) of section 27,

to the spouse of such individual from assets transferred directly or indirectly to the spouse by such individual otherwise than for adequate consideration or in connection with an agreement to live apart ;

In the present case, since the income is only Rs 555,it should be added to your husbands total income if he files return in India. If he has no income in India and does not file any return , he is not required to file the Return because Rs 555 is much below Rs 1,10,000 of basic exemption available to him.

Relevant reading

Is Gift by HUF to Its Member Tax Free!

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Friday, March 14, 2008

Is Painting Gifted By Father~in~ Law Taxable On Its Sale ?

Sir, my father in law is a renowned painter and he gifted me some painting at the time of my marriage around 9 years back.. though no paper work for the same was done for the same at that time... though he is still alive and can give me the same in writing. This year in Jan one of the painting was sold in a auction .. I want to invest the same in a house by investing the same in capital gain account ....please guide me am I allowed for the deduction and how to go about it ? Anvita , Shimla

Alas , if the auction of the painting would have taken place before 1/4/2007, there would not have any tax because the paintings were not defined as "capital asset " as such was out of capital gains tax.

But from FY 2007-08, an amendment was brought in definition of "capital asset" given u/s 2(14) of the I T Act to include paintings and drawings . Therefore , the painting made by your father-in-law will now be liable to tax on capital gains on its sale.Since the paintings are more than 3 years old , the gain on sale of it is long term capital gains chargeable @ 20% .

You will have the following two options for saving tax on long term capital gains:

  1. Buy a residential house to claim exemption u/s 54F.
  2. Buy bonds-NHAI or REC- or any other specified for Section 54EC within six months from sale of paintings. [Right now there is none is the market]

Read more about this here.

You can also take benefit of the scheme of Capital Gains Account Scheme . Read this answer to know more about this Scheme

Complexity in the offing if you are daughter-in-law!

[Son-in-law should ignore the issues described below!]

The painting is gifted by your father-in-law to you. You should know that Income Tax Act considers this type of transfer as diversion of income . Therefore , there is a provision of "clubbing of income " under section 64 of the I T Act . The clause (vi) of section 64(1) states as under

64. (1) In computing the total income of any individual, there shall be included all such income as arises directly or indirectly

....................................

(vi) to the sons wife, of such individual, from assets transferred directly or indirectly on or after the 1st day of June, 1973, to the sons wife by such individual otherwise than for adequate consideration;

What the aforesaid clause says is that if father-in-law transfer an asset to his daughter-in-law without adequate consideration, income from such an asset shall be added to the income of the father -in-law .

In your case, there is certainly a chance that I T department will raise the issue of clubbing .I would suggest following ways :

  • lLet it be taxed under your father-in-law's hand . Let him avail of the exemption u/s 54EC or 54F as the case may be . The said property should be transferred to your name , if he wants to give gift, after three years. But remember , if you sale that property during his life time, again the clubbing provision will come into play.
  • If he gifts to his son, clubbing provision does not affect such transfer. Even in that case , he should transfer only after three years from date of purchase of residential house or bonds.
  • He can again invest in REC or NHAI bonds which he can transfer after three years to you, and you invest full amount in tax free instruments , like PPF,Shares so that any income generated is also tax free . If that be the case , there will not be any clubbing.

Last word!

If you are ready to fight a long drawn battle with I T department , go ahead and claim income as yours and exemption in your name.

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Monday, February 11, 2008

Can Husband Claim Deduction Of Interest On Loan Used For Buying House In Name Of Wife?

We have bought a house in my name.I am a house wife with no income.The loan is taken in my name.My husband pays the EMIs towards the loan.Can my husband claim this amount as deduction from his taxable income. Seema , Chennai

Since you have no source of income and the house is constructed /bought in your name by the money of your husband and loan being repaid by your husband, the income from such property should be assessed in your husband's name only as you are only Benamidar of the property. There are clear provisions under I T Act for such diversion of assets without adequate consideration. Section 27 (i) and section 64(1)(iv) are the two provisions which deals with situation described by you.

Section 27(1)

This by virtue of section 27 of the I T Act which reads as under

27. For the purposes of sections 22 to 26—

(i) an individual who transfers otherwise than for adequate consideration any house property to his or her spouse, not being a transfer in connection with an agreement to live apart, or to a minor child not being a married daughter, shall be deemed to be the owner of the house property so transferred;

In the aforesaid provision, although the words" transfer is used which presupposes the ownership by the husband, one has to go by the spirit of the provision. The clause (i) of section 27 is to prevent the diversion of house property income to spouse.

Even Calcutta High Court in CIT vs Hasina Begum (1986) 158 ITR 215 , held that assessing officer can find oput the real owner by establishing who has actually funded the house property.

Section 64

It is legally settled that where the property is purchased or constructed with the help of fund transferred from husband, the clubbing provision u/s 64 (1)(iv) comes into play. he said subsection states as under :

" In computing the total income of any individual, there shall be included all such income as arises directly or indirectly ...

(iv) subject to the provisions of clause (i) of section 27, in a case not falling under clause (i) of this sub section, to the spouse of such individual from assets transferred directly or indirectly to the spouse by such individual otherwise than for adequate consideration or in connection with an agreement to live apart.

This so held Andhra Pradesh High Court in case of Dr N kumara Rao vs CIT 169 ITR 128 . The facts of the case was

'The admitted facts are as follows Smt. Indira, wife of the assessee, purchased a plot of land at Himayat Nagar and Constructed the house bearing No. 3-6-723. The cost of the site is Rs. 10,000. The expenditure incurred for the construction is Rs. 86,502. In total, Rs. 96,502 was spent for the construction of the house. Out of this, it is found by the Tribunal that the assessee contributed a sum of Rs. 34,500. The income derived from the house was determined by the Income tax Officer at Rs. 9,548. In view of the contribution made by the assessee, by exercise of the power under section 64(1)(iv) of the Income tax Act, 1961 (43 of 1961) (for short " the Act "), the income was apportioned in the ratio of 1 : 3 and 3/4ths of the income in the hands of the assessee was assessed..."

"The next question is whether the Tribunal is justified in arriving at the ratio of 1 : 3. As stated earlier, the total amount invested for constructing the house is Rs. 96,502, out of which Rs. 10,000 was the amount invested by the wife of the assessee to purchase the plot, Rs. 34,500 was transferred by the assessee to his wife in the construction of the house and Rs. 52,000 was the amount which went into the construction from borrowings made in that regard. Section 64 of the Act has no application to outside borrowings. Therefore, the proportion in which the income derived from the property is to be apportioned is 10: 34.5 : 52. Therefore, that part of the income attributable to 34.5 alone is taxable under section 64(1)(iv) of the Act. Instead, the Appellate Assistant Commissioner and the Tribunal wrongly apportioned the income in the ratio of 1 : 3 and assessed 3/4ths of the income derived from the property in the hands of the assessee. That computation is clearly illegal. Therefore, the authorities are directed to compute the income in the above mentioned ratio and determine the taxable income of the assessee accordingly"

Therefore, it is clear when the property is purchased with the help of fund from husband in name of wife , there will be addition of income in proportion of fund invested.

Whether Interest u/s 24 is allowable on loan borrowed by Husband?

In my opinion ,by virtue of the section 27 read with section 64 , the husband has to be considered the owner for the house property to the extent of his contribution in constructing or purchase of house and income from house property to that extent should be computed as per section 22 to 26 of the I T Act. As such , interest u/s 24 of the I T Act should also be allowed .

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Wednesday, May 16, 2007

Transfer of Property Without Adequate Consideration To father Does Not Come Under Clubbing Provison.

I bought a house on loan in May 2006 and wish to let out this house on rent next month. Myself and my father are co-owners of this flat. Please advise,
  • 1. if such rent receivables will be taxed and
  • 2. How whether such rent will be clubbed with my total salary income and taxed as per the new taxation guidelines or will be taxed separately ?
snehal.gandhi@patni.com

The rent receivable will certainly be taxable income computed in accordance with section 23 read with section 24 of the I T Act.The only debatable issue in your question is whether whole of the rent received is to be assessed as your income. The fact which have not been stated by you are:

  1. whether any money was spent by your father in the flat purchased?
  2. Whether the flat ownership is divided 50% -50% or some other ratio.

I presume , for the sake of answer , that all money was invested by you only and the flat was registered with your father as co-owners having 50-50 shares each.

The A.O , in case your file is scrutinised, shall certainly make a case that the ownership is divided to minimise the tax burden and he will assess the income in your hand. There are some case laws in this regard. As far as Clubbing provision under I T Act is concerned , there is no express provision regarding transfer of property by a daughter to her father without adequate consideration. Therefore, by law, the A.O can simply assess the income in your hand , but he may make case out of it. In my view, the portion which has been transferred to your father by you without adequate consideration , should be treated as gift. You can also get a gift deed , accordingly, certified from a notary.

Then only, half of the rent shall be taxed in your hand half in your father's hand.

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Friday, May 04, 2007

Is Gift by HUF to Its Member Tax Free?

Can a HUF give gift of over 25,000 by cheque to one of its coparcners without attracting any gift tax liablity? Will the income generated from this gift attract clubbing in the hand of HUF file? rajeevgupta7@yahoo.com


The gift of Rs 25000 by one person to another person without consideration is tax free in hands of donee (person who received gift) provided total gift received in a year is less than Rs 50,000.This is as per section 56(2)(v) and 56(2)(vi) of the I T Act. Therefore , Rs 25,000 given by HUF to its coparcener is tax free if the coparcener .

Your second question that whether the income generated from such gift shall be clubbed in the hand of HUF is easy to answer. The clubbing provision u/s 64 is applicable to only .

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Wednesday, March 21, 2007

How to Give Gift to An NRI Without Any Problem!

My son is an NRI and working in the US. Can I give him a gift of Rs. 5 lakhs from my retirement benefits and deposit the same as a Fixed Deposit in bank in his name as a joint account with my name as second depositor.? What will be his or my tax liability on the interest earned? What form is to be filled by him (Form 15G?) to avoid tax deduction at source? pevenugopal@hotmail.com

Relax! You can give any amount of gift to any body who is your relative ,not alone your son, without any implication of tax either on you or the relative whom you gift.In my opinion, you transfer the money to your son by account payee cheque to your son's bank and let him deposit the money .

A father has all the freedom to transfer the money to his son under Indian law with no hindrance. However, the A.O may very well doubt your intention if he finds that the interests are being utilised by you but credited in your sons name or he thinks that you wnated to reduce the burden of interest in your hand and therby transferred the interest to your son who is NRI. Moreover , he may read between the lines , if you keep your name as joint holder of the F.D. The A.O may invoke the provision contained in section 60 of the I T Act which says:

  • "60. All income arising to any person by virtue of a transfer whether revocable or not and whether effected before or after the commencement of this Act shall, where there is no transfer of the assets from which the income arises, be chargeable to income-tax as the income of the transferor and shall be included in his total income. "
In plain words , A.O may infer that there was no transfer of asset and accordingly interest income is assessable in your hand and not in your NRI son's hand.

Therefore, I advise you , if your intention is to give gift to your son, give an account payee cheque and do not open a joint FD account. Get a gift deed signed by yourself declaring the cheque and signed by your son as accepted. Get it certified by Notary of a court.

As far as form 15G is concerned , your son can file it if he has no other income from other sources and total income in India is below the basic exemption limit.You should read this posting and there is also a link from where you can download the form 15G

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Tuesday, February 27, 2007

Exemption Can Not Be Claimed if House is Purchased in Relatives Names!

Mr XYZ sold a house which was in solely in his name. To save capital gain tax, Mr XYZ deposited money in the capital gain account with a bank.Now Mr XYZ wants to buy a house, in which the first owner is the daughter in law of Mr XYZ and the second owner is the wife of Mr XYZ. Both daughter in law and wife are housewives.The query is: If Mr XYZ invest the money (which he got by selling the above property) in the house that will be in the name of daughter in law and wife. Will Mr XYZ get benefit under IT Section u/s 54 & 54A—G or any other section. Kindly give the various tax implication rajat_agarwal_imt@yahoo.com
No, XYZ will not get the exemption if he purchases the house in his relatives' name. Moreover, there is clubbing provision of income u/s 64 of the I T Act. In case , those relatives gives the house on rent, the income shall be taxable in the hand of XYZ by virtue of section 64 of the I T Act. You should read more about clubbing in another question answered by me .Here

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Monday, November 06, 2006

What will be the tax implication in case father in Law transfers shares to his daughterinlaw?

Some one asked on moneycontrol ... replied by me 
The capital gains or loss shall be taken for computation of income of father in law and not the daughter -in -law .The clubing provision u/s 64 of the I T Actwill come into play.

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Friday, September 08, 2006

I sold some shares gifted by my husband, but the A.O taxed my husband on those gains. Now the company annanoced Bonus.Will that also be clubbed ?

No, the Bonus received on the shares GIFTED to you by your husband can not be clubbed in his income because the bonus was never belonging to him.There are court ruling on this issue . You can refer
CIT vs M P Birla [1983] 142ITR377 [Bombay High Court]
CIT vs T Sarswathi 133 ITR 315.

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Thursday, September 07, 2006

My father in law has a house in Delhi . He wants to transfer the house in my name. Is the rent taxable in my hand?

No , Rent is not taxable as your income if the transfer of the house was done without receiving the consideration......why? This is beacuse of clubbing provision in the I T Act .

Section 64 (vi) of the I T Act states:

In computing the total income of any individual, there shall be included all such income as arises directly or indirectly" to the sons wife, of such individual, from assets transferred directly or indirectly on or after the 1st day of June, 1973, to the sons wife by such individual otherwise than for adequate consideration;"


Hence , the income shall still be taxable in the hands of your father in law. You better get it transferred in your husbands ' name because in that case the Clubbing provision does not apply.

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