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Showing posts with label A of Your Question. Show all posts
Showing posts with label A of Your Question. Show all posts

Sunday, April 06, 2008

How Much Money Can An Indian Gift In Foreign Exchange To A Person Resident Outside India?



How much money can an Indian mother gift to her son(British national now but Indian national previously) to be take to UK and what is the process of doing it. Does it require any special permissions or declaration.Amit Shah


Thanks to burgeoning foreign exchange kitty of India, Reserve Bank Of India introduced Liberalised Remittance Scheme under which now Indian resident can give gift or donation of US D 2,00,000 in one Financial Year to any one resident outside India which includes charitable/educational /religious trusts etc. Read below the FAQ given on RBI site

18. How much foreign exchange can a resident individual send as gift / donation to a person resident outside India?

Limit of USD 200,000 per financial year under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme would also include remittances towards gift and donation by a resident individual. Accordingly, under the Scheme, any resident individual, if he so desires, may remit the entire limit of USD 200,000 in one financial year as gift to a person residing outside India or as donation to a charitable/educational/ religious/cultural organization outside India. Remittances exceeding the limit will require prior permission from the Reserve Bank.
What should be the process?
As can be seen , no approval is required for gift of USD 2,00,000 in one financial year. However, as person giving gift should prepare a gift deed stating clearly
  • The name and address of the person whom gift is being given.
  • The mode of giving gift.
  • The deed should be signed by the person giving gift .
  • The person getting gift should sign the gift deed accepting the gift.
  • The gift deed should be notarized in the local court where the donor resides.
  • Read More...

    Saturday, April 05, 2008

    Can An NRI Gift Property Owned By Her Expired Parent ?

    Our mother died recently and left some immovable (building) property to her children. I as one of the beneficiaries would like to gift my share to my niece who also received part of the property. We have two units to be shared between three family members. My niece will keep one unit with my share gifted to her and the other unit will probably be sold to pay off the other family member, who wants cash.Can you help me understand the best way to accomplish? We are all NRIs here if that makes a difference. lakshmi, Banglore


    Your question has following issues
    1. Whether you are fit to gift?
    2. If yes, how income tax affect such gift?
    3. Since you are NRI , whether Foreign Exchange Management Act allows gift of immovable property?
    Whether you are fit to give gift?
    The owner of the property was your late mother. So , you can gift the property only if you are the owner of the property. In case of your mother's death , you can become owner in following ways
    1. Your mother left a will where your share has been stated therein. In this case , you will have to apply for probate in the local court.
    2. Your mother died intestate , in that case also you and all other claimants have to apply to court under Hindu Succession Act for succession certificate.
    Thus you become fit to give gift.

    Taxation Issues
    As far as gift is concerned , since it will be to your relative, there will not be any tax on such gift either on donor or donee. However , your plan to sale one unit and then distribute cash is not very good planning because in that case the capital gains income may arise in the name of late mother. That will make the heirs liable to file return and pay tax under section 168 of the I T Act.It is better if the immovable property is sold by individuals who get it. Let then sell it individually , that will make les complexity and will have less tax burden as the income will get shared.

    FEMA applicability?

    Since you are NRIs , foreign Exchange management comes into play. However, gift of immovable property by an NRI to an Indian resident is allowed by RBI . Read question 3 and 4 of RBIs FAQ here.

    In the end I suggest you take help of a good civil lawyer who deals in property

    Read More...

    Friday, April 04, 2008

    Is Payment For Import Of Software liable To TDS?


    I want to import a software from Singapore which is worth Rs. 2,00,000 & has no import duty, My question is

    1) do i have to deduct TDS before making the payment to the party in Singapore?
    2) if yes then what is the % of TDS i have to deduct before making the final payment.
    Rajen Tiwari, Kolkata
    A copyrighted product is different from a copyright. While the payment for use of copyright of a non resident by a resident is deemed to be received in India u/s 9(1) as it is well covered under the definition of royalty" , the purchase of a copyrighted product falls under the category of sale of goods , which is not covered u/s 9(1) ,.Therefore,the payment for import of software is not an income of non resident taxable under Income Tax Act. That being so , there can not be TDS because for application of TDS provision the payment on which tax is to be withhold has to be taxable under I T Act.

    Banglore bench of Income Tax Tribunal was seized of similar issue and it gave verdict in favour of assessee that there is no need to deduct tax at source if there is purchase of copyrighted software and not the copyright. In case of Mphasis BFL Ltd. v. Income-tax Officer (Taxation), Ward 19(2), Bangalore [2006] 9 SOT 756 (Bang.), the Banglore bench of the tribunal considered its own decision in following cases on the same issue

    (a) Samsung Electronics Co. Ltd. v. ITO [2005] 94 ITD 91 (Bang.).
    (b) Lucent Technologies Hindustan Ltd. v. ITO [2004] 82 TTJ (Bang.) 163. and held

    This Bench in the case of Samsung Electronics (P.) Ltd. (supra) ruled that a ready made off the shelf computer programme does not grant any right to utilise the copyright of the computer programme and accordingly, the payments for its import would not constitute royalty income in India and no tax needs to be deducted under section 195 of the Act. The Tribunal observed that the appellant had imported off the shelf software from different suppliers in USA, Sweden and France and after observing the agreement between the parties held that, what the appellant had acquired is only a copy of the copyrighted articles, i.e., software, whereas the copyright remains with the owner, i.e., foreign parties. The incorporeal right to software, i.e., copyright remained with the owner and the same was not transferred to the appellant. The right to use of copyright is totally different from right to use the programme embedded in cassette or CD or it may be software. The Tribunal also held that the appellant had acquired a readymade off the shelf computer programme for being used in business. No right was granted to the appellant to utilise the copyright of the computer programme. The appellant had merely purchased a copy of the copyrighted article, namely, a computer programme/software. In view of the above, it was held that the remittances made by the appellant for purchase of software does not give rise to any income in India and no tax needs to be deducted under section 195 of the Act.

    5.2 Similarly this Bench in the case of Lucent Technologies Hindustan Ltd. (supra) held that there was no liability to deduct tax in India on import of software which is a copyrighted product as distinguished from copyright.

    5.3 The Special Bench also held that software supplied is goods. Though an information technology product is normally regarded as an intangible asset, once technology is put on a media, then it becomes goods liable to custom duty. Finally, the Special Bench held that the payments for hardware and software were lump-sum payments and no separate consideration should be attributed towards software as “royalty”.

    5.4 Keeping in view that there should be a consistent approach on an issue, it is held that payments made for import of software is not royalty and tax was not required to be deducted at source. Hence the demand raised under section 201 for non-deduction of tax at source is cancelled.

    Therefore, if you are simply importing software and there is no purchase of right to use the Copyright of computer programme , there is no liability to deduct the tax , as decided by hon'able tribunal in the aforesaid cases.

    Read More...

    Under Which Head The Rental From Leasehold Property Taxed?


    I own a Long Term Lease Hold Shop (i.e. for 100 years and after which I would become their permanent tenant) which I had given on rent for Rs. 10000/- (Rs. 8000/- in the as Rent and Rs.2000/- as Amenity Charges) as I have the right to sub-let or sub-lease the same. I pay Rs.600/-(annually) as Lease Rent and Rs. 200/- (monthly) as Maintenance Charges. So My Query is :
    1. Will the income received by me will be taxable under the head “Income from House Property” or else in other head ?
    2.What kind of Deductions can be availed by me under above circumstances ? Asked By binanisk@..........com

    The specific head for rental income is "income from house property" charged under section 22 which states

    The annual value of property consisting of any buildings or lands appurtenant thereto of which the assessee is the owner, other than such portions of such property as he may occupy for the purposes of any business or profession carried on by him the profits of which are chargeable to income-tax, shall chargeable to income-tax under the head Income from house property.

    So the owner of the shop has to be taxed for earning rental income from shop. Therefore , in your specific case the question which has to be answered is "whether lease holder is owner of the shop for the purpose of taxation under I T Act?"

    Is lease holder owner of the property?

    Section 27(iiib) of the I T Act defines owners for the purpose of taxation of property income under the head "income from house property" .

    27. For the purposes of sections 22 to 26

    ...............

    (iiib) a person who acquires any rights (excluding any rights by way of a lease from month to month or for a period not exceeding one year) in or with respect to any building or part thereof, by virtue of any such transaction as is referred to in clause (f) of section 269UA, shall be deemed to be the owner of that building or part thereof;

    So , a person who acquires right by virtue of any transaction as is referred to in clause (f) of section 269UA shall be deemed to be the owner of the property. Let us visit that section. Clause f of section 269UA states as under

    (f) transfer,

    (i) in relation to any immovable property referred to in sub-clause (i) of clause (d), means transfer of such property by way of sale or exchange or lease for a term of not less than twelve years, and includes allowing the possession of such property to be taken or retained in part performance of a contract of the nature referred to in section 53A29 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 (4 of 1882).

    This means if a person takes property on lease for period exceeding 12 years , then for the purpose of charging tax on rental income of that property , he shall be regarded as Owner of the property.

    In your case , you have taken property on lease for 100 years , so the income from rental is to be charged under the head "income from house property". The deduction allowed are given in municipal tax paid, 30% of annual value as repairing and maintenance and any interest on any loan borrowed for taking the shop on lease.

    Is service charges income from house property?

    No, the service charges for rental of property is to be taxed under the head"income from other sources' . You can charges expense against earning such service charges.

    Read More...

    Are Physical Disable Person Required To Have Proof Of Expenditure For Claiming Deduction ?

    I am a handicapped ie.,deaf & dumb from birth. Also my spouse is handicapped ie.,deaf & dumb from birth. We are permanently deaf & dumb 100%. I am working as central govt employee and my spouse working in Public sector undertakings. I want to know if I have the eligibility to claim deduction u/s 80U and 80DD? . N Prakash , Chennai

    Income Tax Act under section 80U provides deduction to a physical disable person . Section 80DD provides deduction to a person who is spending on physical disable person. Hearing impairment is a disability defined for the purpose of section 80U .Therefore , in your case and your wife's case , both of you can get deduction u/s 80U of the I T Act.

    Do you require medical expenditure proof?

    No , under section 80U , there is no requirement of medical expenditure. This is a deduction to a physical disable without any other condition than that the person claiming should obtain a certificate of being physical disable person from a prescribed medical authority. That is all one require to claim the deduction .The said provision is as under :

    80U. (1) In computing the total income of an individual, being a resident, who, at any time during the previous year, is certified by the medical authority to be a person with disability, there shall be allowed a deduction of a sum of fifty thousand rupees :

    Provided that where such individual is a person with severe disability, the provisions of this sub-section shall have effect as if for the words fifty thousand rupees, the words seventy-five thousand rupees had been substituted.

    (2) Every individual claiming a deduction under this section shall furnish a copy of the certificate issued by the medical authority in the form and manner, as may be prescribed, along with the return of income under section 139, in respect of the assessment year for which the deduction is claimed :

    What is the meaning of physical disability?
    The Explanation given under section 80U defines meaning of physical disability as under
    (a) disability shall have the meaning assigned to it in clause (i) of section 2 of the Persons with Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights and Full Participation) Act, 1995 (1 of 1996), and includes autism, cerebral palsy and multiple disabilities referred to in clauses (a), (c) and (h) of section 2 of the National Trust for Welfare of Persons with Autism, Cerebral Palsy, Mental Retardation and Multiple Disabilities Act, 1999 (44 of 1999);
    A list of disability covered under section 2 of the Persons with Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights and Full Participation) Act, 1995 (1 of 1996), is given here

    What is severe disability?
    Person suffering from severe disability gets higher deduction of Rs 75 ,000. Disability under I T Act means 40% disability whereas severe disability means when disability is certified to be 80% .

    Is any form prescribed ?
    Yes, the Form 10-IA is prescribed for persons suffering from autism, cerebral palsy or multiple disability and for others in the form prescribed vide notification No. 16-18/97-NI.1, dated the 1st June, 2001. You can get all about forms here

    Who are the Certifying Medical Authorities?
    As per Rule 11A of I T Rules, the certification must be done by any of the following
    (i) a Neurologist having a degree of Doctor of Medicine (MD) in Neurology (in case of children, a Paediatric Neurologist having an equivalent degree); or

    (ii) a Civil Surgeon or Chief Medical Officer in a Government hospital.

    Therefore , answer to your specific question is that both of you can claim deduction u/s 80U upto Rs 75,000 each since both of you are suffering from 100% of disability.

    Read More...

    Tuesday, April 01, 2008

    Can One Claim Deduction For Expense On More Than One Disable Dependant?

    I have to file income tax return where the assessee has 3 medically disabled person i.e Father , Mother and Uncle (fathers brother). What is the process of getting deduction for the A.Y. 2007-08 , What is the amount and what is deduction. Pinky Sitalni

    Since you have asked regarding three relatives who are physically disable and you want to get deduction for expense on their maintenance , I must opine first on the issue whether you are eligible for one patient or more than one patient who are your relatives and dependent on you.

    I find the provision has used the word “a dependant” and “ a person with disability’ plain reading of which states that the deduction is allowed in case of one dependant t only. Read the opening lines of section 80DD

    80DD. (1) Where an assessee, being an individual or a Hindu undivided family, who is a resident in India, has, during the previous year,
    (a) incurred any expenditure for the medical treatment (including nursing), training and rehabilitation of a dependant, being a person with disability; or
    Following points should be noted regarding claim of deduction u/s 80DD and also read this.

    1. Section 80DD provides for deduction in case of an individual who spends on maintenance of physical disable person.
    2. The physical disable person must be dependent on you.To know more on this , see this answer.
    3. Types of physical disability covered are given here.
    4. You will need to get certificate in prescribed forms. Different types of forms are required for different types of disability.Get Forms from here.
    5. The prescribed authority for giving such certificates are: (i) a Neurologist having a degree of Doctor of Medicine (MD) in Neurology (in case of children, a Paediatric Neurologist having an equivalent degree); or (ii) a Civil Surgeon or Chief Medical Officer in a Government hospital.
    6. The deduction allows is Rs 50,000 (Rs 75000) in case the disable person is suffering from severe disability.
    7. person with severe disability means
    • a person with eighty per cent or more of one or more disabilities, as referred to in sub-section (4) of section 56 of the Persons with Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights and Full Participation) Act, 1995 (1 of 1996); or

    Read More...

    Saturday, March 29, 2008

    Why Is Pension Fund Investment Not A Great Tax Saving Move?

    Under which section surrender value of pension plan is taxable ? Sanjay Chavan, Pune

    The contribution in pension funds gives the investor deduction u/s 80CCC upto Rs 1,00,000 . However,the combined deduction under 80CCC + 80C + 80CCD is Rs 1,00,000.

    Why is it not great tax saving ?

    The scheme of pension funds of LIC or other private funds are not great tax saving instruments in comparison to other saving instruments because when you receive pension or surrender the fund and receive the amount , it is taxable in the year of receipt.

    Read the provision given under section 80CCC (2) which is clear as far as taxation of pension or surrender value is concerned.
    (2) Where any amount standing to the credit of the assessee in a fund, referred to in sub-section (1) in respect of which a deduction has been allowed under sub-section (1), together with the interest or bonus accrued or credited to the assessees account, if any, is received by the assessee or his nominee

    (a) on account of the surrender of the annuity plan whether in whole or in part, in any previous year, or

    (b) as pension received from the annuity plan,

    an amount equal to the whole of the amount referred to in clause (a) or clause (b) shall be deemed to be the income of the assessee or his nominee, as the case may be, in that previous year in which such withdrawal is made or, as the case may be, pension is received, and shall accordingly be chargeable to tax as income of that previous year.
    Even nominee is not spared from taxation!

    Under which section is it taxable?
    The computation of income is made under five heads as provided in section 14 of the I T Act. The fifth head is "Income from other sources" which is given as F in section 14 of the I T Act.The computation of income from other sources is given in section 56 of the I T Act. The opening lines of section 56 says:
    56. (1) Income of every kind which is not to be excluded from the total income under this Act shall be chargeable to income-tax under the head Income from other sources, if it is not chargeable to income-tax under any of the heads specified in section 14, items A to E.
    The surrender value of the pension fund or pension received from such pension funds (do not confuse this pension with pension from employers) are neither Salary nor business income nor house property income nor capital gains. Thus such an income is taxable under residuary head i.e "income from other sources"

    Read More...

    Tuesday, March 25, 2008

    Is Distance Education Eligible For Deduction ?

    Does a Distance learning course of Management via satellite also qualify for the aforesaid deduction? Rajesh ,Hyderabad
    Is the tuition fees for M.B.A (Distance Education) paid for self is allowable for deduction u/s 80C of the Income Tax Act . Prem Kumar,Chennai
    Do distance education fees gets IT exemption ? Ganesh R ,Banglore
    Income tax Act provides two types of deduction for education . These are
    1. Tuition fee paid for children u/s 80C subject to maximum Rs 1,00,000.
    2. Interest on education loan for studies of self or spouse of children without any limit u/s 80E
    Now the question raised is :whether correspondence or distance education is covered under those sections of the I T Act for thr purpose of claiming deduction? Let us see what is the meaning of "studies" for the purpose of section 80C and 80 E.
    Section 80C(xvii) provides as under

    (xvii) as tuition fees (excluding any payment towards any development fees or donation or payment of similar nature), whether at the time of admission or thereafter,

    (a) to any university, college, school or other educational institution situated within India;

    (b) for the purpose of full-time education of any of the persons specified in sub-section (4);
    Section 80E
    Subsection 3 of section 80E defines education in following words
    (c) higher education means full-time studies for any graduate or post-graduate course in engineering, medicine, management or for post-graduate course in applied sciences or pure sciences including mathematics and statistics;
    As can be seen the wording , in both the provisions put stress on "full time "education or studies which means that the course should not be "part time" . There is no distinction by delivery mechanism of imparting education. Distance education is different from the regular course is that the delivery of education may be a combination of ways-postal,electronic and class room. So, in my opinion , if the education is not "part time" , the deduction u/s 80C is claimable for all modes of getting education-whether it is correspondence or electronic or a combination of medium of delivery.

    Read More...

    Friday, March 14, 2008

    Is Interest To Tax Exempt Educational Trust Subject To TDS?

    I am a trustee of an educational Trust. The Trust is registered u/s 12AA. Should the banks deduct TDS on our FD interest? Chandan Naha , Kolkata

    Yes, the Bank is correct to deduct the tax at source even though you are registered u/s 12AA . The bank is only doing their duty and they can not take the role of Assessing Officer .

    As per CBDT Circular : No. 4/2002, dated 16-7-2002, all entities having income fully exempt u/s 10 is not out of TDS clutch. The said circular is given below which states in what conditions ,TDS may not be made .

    Applicability to entities whose income is fully exempt under section 10 -

    Subsequent to the amendment to section 197A made by the Finance Act, 2002 whereby a new sub-section (1B) has been inserted with effect from 1st June, 2002, representations have been received seeking clarification whether the prescribed self-declaration under the said section can be submitted by entities exempt from tax under section 10 even if the payments referred to in sub-section (1A) to be made to them exceed the threshold limit not subject to tax.

    This matter has been examined by the Board. It has been decided that in case of those funds or authorities or Boards or bodies, by whatever name called, whose income is unconditionally exempt under section 10 and who are statutorily not required to file return of income as per section 139, there would be no requirement for tax deduction at source since their income is anyway exempt under the Income-tax Act. The institutions whose income is unconditionally exempt under section 10 and who are statutorily not required to file return of income as per the provisions of section 139 are :

    (i) “local authority”, as referred to in the Explanation to clause (20);

    (ii) Regimental Fund or Non-public Fund established by the armed forces of the Union referred to in clause (23AA);

    (iii) Fund, by whatever name called, set up by the Life Insurance Corporation of India on or after 1st August, 1996, or by any other insurer referred to in clause (23AAB);

    (iv) Authority (whether known as the Khadi and Village Industries Board or by any other name) referred to in clause (23BB);

    (v) Body or authority referred to in clause (23BBA);

    (vi) SAARC Fund for Regional Projects set up by Colombo Declaration referred to in clause (23BBC);

    (vii) Secretariat of the Asian Organisation of the Supreme Audit Institutions referred to in clause (23BBD) till assessment year 2003-04;

    (viii) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority referred to in clause (23BBE);

    (ix) Prime Minister’s National Relief Fund referred to in sub-clause (i), Prime Minister’s Fund (Promotion of Folk Art) referred to in sub-clause (ii), Prime Minister’s Aid to Students Fund referred to in sub-clause (iii), National Foundation for Communal Harmony referred to in sub-clause (iiia), any university or other educational institution referred to in sub-clause (iiiab) and any hospital or other institution for the reception and treatment of persons as referred to in sub-clause (iiiac) of clause (23C);

    (x) Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Small Industries referred to in clause (23EB) assessment year 2006-07;

    (xi) Provident fund to which the Provident Funds Act, 1925 (19 of 1925) referred to in sub-clause (i), recognised provident fund referred to in sub-clause (ii), approved superannuation funds referred to in sub-clause (iii), approved gratuity fund referred to in sub-clause (iv) and funds referred to in sub-clause (v) of clause (25);

    (xii) Employees’ State Insurance Fund referred to in clause (25A);

    (xiii) Corporations referred to in clause (26BB);

    (xiv) Boards referred to in clause (29A) -

    As you can see that two prime conditions to be satisfied for being out of TDS by fully tax free entities are

    1. Income is unconditionally exempt and
    2. There is no requirement of filing return u/s 139.

    Many of the trusts or entities whose income is otherwise fully exempt do not fulfil both the conditions because if one reads sub-sections 4A ,4B ,4C and 4D of Section 139 makes it mandatory for filing return for even those entities whose income is otherwise exempt u/s 10,11 and 12 of the I T Act.

    So , what is the remedy for exempt entities like you?

    There are two remedies left for the Trusts or institutions whose income is exempt and who wants that the income earned by them from interest or dividend should not be subject to tax . These are :

    1. Apply before Assessing officer for Nil deduction certificate u/s 197 of the I T Act. The application should be made in Form 13 which once A.O issues NIL deduction certificate asp per Rule 28AA of I T Rule produced before the deductor will save you from the TDS .

    Or

    2. Submit a declaration in Form 15G of the I T Act to the deductor .

    Remember Form 15G can not be filed by an entity whose aggregate income from interest or income from units do not exceed maximum amount chargeable to tax .

    Read More...

    Is Painting Gifted By Father~in~ Law Taxable On Its Sale ?

    Sir, my father in law is a renowned painter and he gifted me some painting at the time of my marriage around 9 years back.. though no paper work for the same was done for the same at that time... though he is still alive and can give me the same in writing. This year in Jan one of the painting was sold in a auction .. I want to invest the same in a house by investing the same in capital gain account ....please guide me am I allowed for the deduction and how to go about it ? Anvita , Shimla

    Alas , if the auction of the painting would have taken place before 1/4/2007, there would not have any tax because the paintings were not defined as "capital asset " as such was out of capital gains tax.

    But from FY 2007-08, an amendment was brought in definition of "capital asset" given u/s 2(14) of the I T Act to include paintings and drawings . Therefore , the painting made by your father-in-law will now be liable to tax on capital gains on its sale.Since the paintings are more than 3 years old , the gain on sale of it is long term capital gains chargeable @ 20% .

    You will have the following two options for saving tax on long term capital gains:

    1. Buy a residential house to claim exemption u/s 54F.
    2. Buy bonds-NHAI or REC- or any other specified for Section 54EC within six months from sale of paintings. [Right now there is none is the market]

    Read more about this here.

    You can also take benefit of the scheme of Capital Gains Account Scheme . Read this answer to know more about this Scheme

    Complexity in the offing if you are daughter-in-law!

    [Son-in-law should ignore the issues described below!]

    The painting is gifted by your father-in-law to you. You should know that Income Tax Act considers this type of transfer as diversion of income . Therefore , there is a provision of "clubbing of income " under section 64 of the I T Act . The clause (vi) of section 64(1) states as under

    64. (1) In computing the total income of any individual, there shall be included all such income as arises directly or indirectly

    ....................................

    (vi) to the sons wife, of such individual, from assets transferred directly or indirectly on or after the 1st day of June, 1973, to the sons wife by such individual otherwise than for adequate consideration;

    What the aforesaid clause says is that if father-in-law transfer an asset to his daughter-in-law without adequate consideration, income from such an asset shall be added to the income of the father -in-law .

    In your case, there is certainly a chance that I T department will raise the issue of clubbing .I would suggest following ways :

    • lLet it be taxed under your father-in-law's hand . Let him avail of the exemption u/s 54EC or 54F as the case may be . The said property should be transferred to your name , if he wants to give gift, after three years. But remember , if you sale that property during his life time, again the clubbing provision will come into play.
    • If he gifts to his son, clubbing provision does not affect such transfer. Even in that case , he should transfer only after three years from date of purchase of residential house or bonds.
    • He can again invest in REC or NHAI bonds which he can transfer after three years to you, and you invest full amount in tax free instruments , like PPF,Shares so that any income generated is also tax free . If that be the case , there will not be any clubbing.

    Last word!

    If you are ready to fight a long drawn battle with I T department , go ahead and claim income as yours and exemption in your name.

    Read More...

    Tuesday, March 04, 2008

    Can Divorce Settlement Be Done In Cash?

    I am in a software company, hence i am in salaried class. I am getting divorce from my wife through mutual consent in court, for which i need to make permanent alimony of Rs 15 lakhs. I have the source of income for this amount. My wife is asking the complete amount in Cash(not agreeing for Demand Draft), which will be settled infront of the Judge. Is there any violation of IT law if i pay this amount in the form of cash. Is there any limit for Cash transaction for Divorce settlement.Logu , Chennai

    Yes, you can pay divorce alimony in cash.There is no restriction of any kind as far as Income Tax Act is concerned. If you have confusion regarding section 40A(3) or section 269SS or 269T , be assured that non of these provisions are applicable to your case because while provision under section 40A(3) which prohibits payment of expenditure exceeding Rs 20000 in cash is applicable for business income , section 269SS or 269T prohibit accepting or repaying a loan or deposit exceeding Rs 20,000 in cash . The permanent alimony of Rs 15 Lakhs is neither loan nor deposit nor a business expenditure.Therefore none of the sections-Sec. 269 or sec.269T or sec. 40A(3) are applicable in your case. So, go ahead and have peace of life at the cost of Rs 15 lakhs in cash!

    Read More...

    Saturday, February 23, 2008

    Can Non Residents Subscribe PPF?

    I am an Overseas Citizen of India and also a Canadian Citizen. I had a PPF account in India which I opened before leaving India and I am still continuing to contribute. It is expiring and I want to extend it for next five years or so. Is it legal to continue such account.Raman,Toronto, Canada

    NRIs are prohibited from opening a PPF account or investing in any of the Post office schemes as well as the RBI savings Bonds. Circular GSR 585(E) dt. 25.7.03 prohibits NRIs from opening a PPF account.

    The wording in Public Provident Fund 1968 which is amended time to time, is as under with respect to issue of subscription by Non Resident

    Non Resident Indians are not eligible to open an account under the

    Public Provident Fund Scheme:-

    Provided that if a resident who subsequently becomes Non Resident Indian

    during the currency of the maturity period prescribed under Public Provident

    Fund Scheme, may continue to subscribe to the Fund till its maturity on a Non

    Repatriation Basis.

    [MOF (DEA) Notification No GSR 585 (E) dated 25.7.2003]

    Therefore, it is in my opinion you are not eligible for extrentding it to another five years. But then you can also make a case that since law provides you to continue with PPF , you can extend the PPF for another five years.

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    Can Employer Ask For Proof Before Allowing Deduction?

    Can an employer give benefit of Sec. 80DD while issuing Form 16? If so, what documents should the employer obtain from the employee? Or should the employee claim this directly while filing his/her ROI?Is actual proof of expenditure required? Or deduction of 50k is granted irrespective?This is with respect to an employee who is claiming this for his sister. Narayan Ramakrishnan , Mumbai

    Yes, an employer can give benefit of deduction u/s 80DD . In fact , the employer is supposed to give benefit of deduction claimed by an employee. This is clear from the Circular issued by the Central Board Of Direct Taxes every year for deduction of tax at source in case of salaries. For FY 2007-08 , CBDT issued circular no 8/2007    dated 5/12/2007 . As per this circular , the Drawing & Disbursing Officer should allow deduction claimed by the employee but they are also supposed to satisfy themselves about genuineness of the claim . The exact wording is as under

    DDOs to satisfy themselves of the genuineness of claim

    (21) The Drawing and Disbursing Officers should satisfy themselves about the actual deposits/subscriptions/payments made by the employees, by calling for such particulars/information as they deem necessary before allowing the aforesaid deductions. In case the DDO is not satisfied about the genuineness of the employees claim regarding any deposit/subscription/payment made by the employee, he should not allow the same, and the employee would be free to claim the deduction/rebate on such amount by filing his return of income and furnishing the necessary proof etc., therewith, to the satisfaction of the Assessing Officer.

    Amount of deduction?

    In my opinion, the deduction u/s 80DD up to Rs 50,000 is claimable if the assessee proves that he incurs  some kind of expenditure of the treatment and maintenance of relatives. For more on this , read here.

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    Monday, February 18, 2008

    Is The Prize In Kind Taxable ?

    I have a credit card for which the bank ran a promo/contest between October and December 2007. Every 1 lakh transaction in a week for the 12 weeks of the contest was gifted a car. The winner was supposed to pay Registration,Road Tax and Insurance and VAT(Extras) , if he wished to take delivery of the car as the Bank paid the (Main ) cost of the Car to the Car manufacturer. Essentially there was NO CASH PRIZE given.I being one of the winners paid the relevant extras for registration/taxes/insurance as mentioned above and got the card home. Am I liable to any income tax here ? If yes how do I pay the tax as I do NOT have the cash to pay and I never got Cash ..? Samuel Abraham , Banglore

    I am surprised that the prize was given without tax deduction at source , because the prize whether in cash or in kind is taxable . Income is defined under section 2(24). Sub-clause (ix) under income includes income from winnings from lotteries or games. Th exact wordings given are :
    (ix) any winnings from lotteries, crossword puzzles, races including horse races, card games and other games of any sort or from gambling or betting of any form or nature whatsoever.]

    Explanation.For the purposes of this sub-clause,

    (i) lottery includes winnings from prizes awarded to any person by draw of lots or by chance or in any other manner whatsoever, under any scheme or arrangement by whatever name called;

    (ii) card game and other game of any sort includes any game show, an entertainment programme on television or electronic mode, in which people compete to win prizes or any other similar game ;

    Therefore, the car won under an scheme by the credit card company is definitely a game of sort which put card holders in a contest and made the "transactions falling under 1 lakh criteria" a matter of chance . The value of the car is certainly your income taxable under the I T Act.

    Whether TDS necessary?
    Why in the very beginning I expressed surprise for non deduction of tax at source is that section 194B of the I T Act provides that payments for winnings should be subject to tax at source . The exact wordings of the said section is as under:
    194B. The person responsible for paying to any person any income by way of winnings from any lottery or crossword puzzle or card game and other game of any sort in an amount exceeding five thousand rupees shall, at the time of payment thereof, deduct income-tax thereon at the rates in force :

    Provided that in a case where the winnings are wholly in kind or partly in cash and partly in kind but the part in cash is not sufficient to meet the liability of deduction of tax in respect of whole of the winnings, the person responsible for paying shall, before releasing the winnings, ensure that tax has been paid in respect of the winnings.

    As can be seen that the TDS provision takes care of TDS on even kind. In my opinion , there is certainly misinterpretation of the provision given under section 194B by the credit card . But anyway that is not your headache because dedcution tax was their problem.

    Special tax rate !

    Section 115 BB of the I T Act is tax rate for winnings from game or lottery etc . The said section provides as under :

    115BB. Where the total income of an assessee includes any income by way of winnings from any lottery or crossword puzzle or race including horse race (not being income from the activity of owning and maintaining race horses) or card game and other game of any sort or from gambling or betting of any form or nature whatsoever, the income-tax payable shall be the aggregate of

    (i) the amount of income-tax calculated on income by way of winnings from such lottery or crossword puzzle or race including horse race or card game and other game of any sort or from gambling or betting of any form or nature whatsoever, at the rate of thirty per cent; and

    (ii) the amount of income-tax with which the assessee would have been chargeable had his total income been reduced by the amount of income referred to in clause (i).

    So , the rate of tax on your winning will be 30 % of the value of winnings . Remember , general rate of tax is not applicable for your winnings. You will have to pay the tax on the winnings .

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    Monday, February 11, 2008

    Can Husband Claim Deduction Of Interest On Loan Used For Buying House In Name Of Wife?

    We have bought a house in my name.I am a house wife with no income.The loan is taken in my name.My husband pays the EMIs towards the loan.Can my husband claim this amount as deduction from his taxable income. Seema , Chennai

    Since you have no source of income and the house is constructed /bought in your name by the money of your husband and loan being repaid by your husband, the income from such property should be assessed in your husband's name only as you are only Benamidar of the property. There are clear provisions under I T Act for such diversion of assets without adequate consideration. Section 27 (i) and section 64(1)(iv) are the two provisions which deals with situation described by you.

    Section 27(1)

    This by virtue of section 27 of the I T Act which reads as under

    27. For the purposes of sections 22 to 26—

    (